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Jesus Only for the Jews

Matthew 15:24
"But he [Jesus] answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

Problem:
Before healing the daughter of the Syrophoenecian woman, Jesus said that he was only sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Moslems take this to be confirmation of their view that Jesus was a prophet for the Jews only, and that his disciples were therefore also only sent to the Jews. From this they argue further that the teachings of Jesus are not for Gentiles and that the gospel cannot therefore be a universal religion, unlike Islam.

Solution:
  1. Consider the context of the verse. Jesus may have told the woman that he was not sent to anyone other than Israel, but he then healed the Syrophoenecian woman's daughter. This was done in confirmation of the idea that the leftovers of the Gospel which were not used by Israel could be given to the Gentiles.

  2. The move to incorporate Gentiles into the early ecclesia did not come until after the resurrection of Jesus (Acts 10). It was produced by a direct revelation from God (Acts 10:10-16) and was confirmed by a dispensation of the Holy Spirit send by God (Acts 10:44-48). This shows the sanction of God for including the Gentiles in the ecclesia, and if this is encouraged by God then the Gospel must be a message for Gentiles as well as Jews.

  3. Jesus gave the Apostles the command to preach the Gospel in all the world and to everyone without restriction. (Matthew 28:19,20; Mark 16:15; Acts 1:8). This shows that Jesus considered his message to be a universal one for all people.

  4. The claims of real Christianity to be a religion for people from all nations is excellent. There is no cultural baggage. Prayers are in the vernacular and the Bible can be understood in translation into many languages without the need to lose too much detail. Islam, on the other hand, has a large amount of cultural baggage in the Arabic language. Moslems have obliterated local culture wherever they have gone.